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Posted - 12 Jul 2012 :  14:26:33  

I am a student of the Bible and I try to research the Greek texts to better understand the true meaning. I am not a formal student of Greek, but try to study it on my own. I am having a difficult time understanding the difference between the use of charis (Strong's 5485) and charin (Strong's 5484). From my studies, throughout the New Testament when the English words "grace" and "favor" are found, the Greek word charis is used. When "grace" and "favor" are found in the Old Testament (the Hebrew word chen), the Septuagint uses the word charin. My studies say that charis is in the nominative case nd that charin is in the accusative case: this I understand. However, I am having a difficult time understanding why the different cases to mean the same thing: why the Septuagint would use the Greek charin in the Old Testament to mean basically the same thing as the Greek charis in the New Testament. Can someone please help me understand the difference and why the different words would be used? I am stymied in my studies until I can resolve this question. Any help would be GREATLY appreciated!



615 Posts

Posted - 12 Jul 2012 :  16:47:09  


Don't panic! You will find all the help you want!

First of all, it is the same word, just a different case - as you already have learned. Perhaps you will help us understand your problem by pasting here a couple of examples from the New Testament and the Septuagint, to let us know exactly what you have on your mind.

It seems to me you have trouble understanding the purpose of inflection, since you speak English, a language with little use of inflection. Read www.ellopos.net/elpenor/lessons/lesson3.asp?pg=6" target="_blank">some pages from the Greek Language section of Elpenor about inflection, and come back here if you still need help.

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