I didn't make myself clear. The text is not altered. Both Wilamovitz and Murray give the same lines as you wrote them. I just reminded you that modern Greek is not very modern, it starts in the classical era - even modern Greek pronunciation starts at that time (recall Plato's remarks on this change).
What I'm thinking now, is the essence of your question, "why does the case switch from dative to Accusative", what is (at least here) the reason of that transition, even in the very same paragraph!, which in the course of time prevailed?
It is a matter of interpretation and I didn't happen to see some so far. What seems logical to me (and I'm open to any suggestions you may have) is the immediacy of accusative. Aeschylus wanted here Athena turn boldly to Erinyes, and thus he left dative for accusative. Dative is almost as if one refers to an absent person, accusative is stronger and immediate.