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vir litterarum

USA
42 Posts

Posted - 04 Nov 2006 :  10:57:20  


τί γὰρ γυναικὸς ἥτις ἄνδρα νοσφίσῃ
Eum. 211

Why is the usage of the subjunctive in this relative clause and how is the genitive γυναικὸς functioning within this sentence. I translated it, "What then of a wife who deprives her husband of life?" This translation seems reasonable but I can't fit the subjunctive or genitive very well into it.


 

George

Greece
615 Posts

Posted - 05 Nov 2006 :  12:56:30  

 

There is a verb implied, which is connected with your genitive. Genitive usually regards possession. In English we say, e.g. “the size of a house”, in Greek “τὸ τοῦ οἴκου μέγεθος”, the size that belongs, is proper, to a house. Your translation is right (“of a wife”) and means a possession, that something belongs to the wife, whether punishment, or this or other fate, future, etc., according to the context, e.g. (in a more analytical rendering) “what is it that fits to the wife who murdered” etc. You can also imply the word γέρας (στ. 209) (“and what is the geras of a wife”, etc.)

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vir litterarum

USA
42 Posts

Posted - 05 Nov 2006 :  15:56:51  

 

Thanks. It seemed like something had been ellipsed.

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George

Greece
615 Posts

Posted - 07 Nov 2006 :  13:17:07  

 

Are you translating the complete text?

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vir litterarum

USA
42 Posts

Posted - 07 Nov 2006 :  21:26:38  

 

Yes. I am writing my senior paper on the complete Oresteia but only have time to translate the Eumenides. My reason for asking such pointed questions is that I am preparing to major in Classics in college, so I wish to gain a grasp of the specific constructions of Attic Greek. I also intend to include some linguistic analysis of the play in my paper at least on the Eumenides if I can finish my translation in time.

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George

Greece
615 Posts

Posted - 08 Nov 2006 :  06:37:01  

 

What was the response of your family and friends when you decided to choose Greek studies?

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