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Posted - 19 Jul 2008 :  16:17:55  


Is it common in Koine Greek to use the indicative future where one should expect a subjunctive aorist for example? John 1:19 has "ινα ερωτησουσιν αυτον" in Papyrus 75. Other manuscripts have "ινα ερωτησωσιν αυτον" = "in order to ask him".

Thank you!



615 Posts

Posted - 19 Jul 2008 :  17:58:42  


The www.ellopos.net/elpenor/greek-texts/new-testament/john/1.asp">Byzantine version of John 1:19 has ἐρωτήσωσιν, which is the correct. Ἐρωτήσουσιν may be a copy error; ου and ω can be confused upon writing, if you think that they used to unite the letters, as we also write normally when we don't use the computer. If Papyrus 75 is relatively recent, it may also be used as a probable testimony to the gradual abolishment of the type of the subjunctive. The modern Greek type ρωτήσουν is used in both the future indicative and the subjunctive aorist.

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