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 Apology 22e--use of "mete"
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vir litterarum

USA
42 Posts

Posted - 15 Jul 2007 :  14:07:29  


a)pokru/ptein: w(/ste me e)mauto\n+ a)nerwta=n+ u(pe\r tou= xrhsmou= po/tera decai/mhn a)\n ou(/twj w(/sper e)/xw e)/xein, mh/te ti sofo\j w)\n th\n e)kei/nwn sofi/an mh/te a)maqh\j th\n a)maqi/an+, h)\ a)mfo/tera a(\ e)kei=noi e)/xousin e)/xein. a)pekrina/mhn ou)=n e)mautw=| kai\ tw=| xrhsmw=| o(/ti moi lusiteloi= w(/sper e)/xw e)/xein.
P.A. 22e

Why does Plato use "mh/te" with the participle "on" instead of "oute"? The participle definitely has no conditional or general force.


 

George

Greece
615 Posts

Posted - 15 Jul 2007 :  17:59:09  

 

I think both can be used without problem, synonymously, but check it further and let us know if you discover anything.

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Daniel Francis Bonner

USA
1 Posts

Posted - 23 Jul 2007 :  11:14:14  

 

Vir litterarum : In Smyth's Greek Grammar, #2942 is headed "oute (mhte)". The discussion there indicates interchangeability. Two examples from Plato don't clearly address your question, though. Beyond this, I'm out of my depth.

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vir litterarum

USA
42 Posts

Posted - 27 Aug 2007 :  13:36:01  

 

"oute" and "mhte" are definitely not interchangeable. Their usage corresponds to the difference in usage between "ou" and "mh." Someone else I know suggested that "mhte" is used because, if "echein" were negated, "mhte" would be used (examples of this are listed in Smyth 2737c), and this explanation seems to be the correct one to me.

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George

Greece
615 Posts

Posted - 19 Sep 2007 :  19:30:24  

 

"Seems to be the correct one to me" is not enough, especially when a search in Plato would prove you that oute and mete are used synonymously. There is, though, a general difference in the words me and ou, the latter being a more certain negation, since me can also have the sense of "maybe". This 'side' of its meaning may have at times some influence in its negative use as synonymous to ou, but this is a matter one needs to investigate.

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