Did the conjugation of οἶδα change from Classical to Koine Greek? I ran into John 1:31, where ᾔδειν is used as being 1st person singular, while my classical greek textbook says ᾔδειν should be 3rd person singular, and 1st person should be ᾔδη.

Thank you

Hi Marian, let me suggest that you change your textbook, because it should let you know that οἶδα has the following two forms in classical Greek (imperfect indicative:) ᾔδη, ᾔδησθα, ᾔδει, ᾔδεμεν, ᾔδετε, ᾔδεσαν, and ᾔδειν, ᾔδεις, ᾔδειν, ᾖσμεν, ᾖστε, ᾖσαν. As you see, in the second form the first and the third person of the singular are the same. If your textbook mixes the forms and uses ᾔδη for the first person and ᾔδειν for the third, can not be trusted. It is safe to close it and never open it again.

That's too bad :(. It seemed pretty good at first glance. It's the "Teach yourself ancient greek" book, by Gavin Bets & Allan Henry. Anyway, I guess it's better to throw it away than to learn bad things :)

Thanks