greetings,

i am from hungary, and i am really fond of ancient greek, not only for its undeniable natural beauty, but for its historical importance, too. i study iranistics, and the use of ancient greek is - although not obligatory - a prerequisite for getting familiar with the ancient and early mediaeval history of iran (just think of the similarities between the iliad and shahname as a 'national epic'), and the neighbouring middle eastern and eastern european countries. furthermore, the byzantine period is also one thing i am deeply interested in, not only because my thinking of it as a most glorious examle of a state, but for other more 'philosophical' reasons, and connections with my country's history, too. but enough of my poor self-introduction, and sorry for taking your time, i should continue on to my question.

ever since i started studying ancient greek, pronunciation has been a major issue. in my coutry, it is almost a strict rule to use erasmian pr., which practice - i think - is even against erasmus of rotterdam's original goals of creating a historically accurate system of vocalization. after dozens of nights spent in front of the monitor, digging through wikipedia's ancient, koine, mediaeval greek pages, and other such liguistic sites, i decided to use a bit 'mechanical' system, for modern pronunciation is grammatically hard (contrast imín - imín: identical in the second and third persons).
the conclusion is: my the pronunciation is identical to modern greek, except that
1. i disregard hard and forced palatalization, only recognize soft,
2. i pronounce y, oi, yi as french u/ german ü,
3. i pronounce h (eta) as the sound 'é' in my mother tongue (somewhere between modern greek e and i, closer to the latter).

my question is, finally, will greek-speaking people understand me if i use this system?

thank you for your time, and for this marvellous site.

Soft palatalization is also used in modern Greek (in Athens). The rest will sound a little strange, but they will understand you.

thank you. :)